1. The physiographic feature which is characterized by a unique arrangement of hillocks
and valleys, often referred to as "badlands":
A) Himalayas B) Vindhya Range
C) Malwa Plateau D) Aravalli Range
Ans: C) Malwa Plateau
2. The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) has a significant impact on
the climate of India by
influencing:
A) The strength of the monsoon winds
B) The amount of snowfall in the Himalayas
C) The occurrence of tropical cyclones
D) The temperature patterns in northern India
Ans: A) The strength of the monsoon winds
3. The temperature inversion phenomenon in winter in
northern India leads to:
A) Increased evaporation
B) Formation of fog and poor visibility
C) Higher temperatures at ground level
D) Enhanced rainfall
Ans: B) Formation of fog and poor visibility
4. The presence of "Kankar" in the soil indicates:
A) Poor drainage conditions B) Presence of calcium carbonate
C) Acidic pH levels D) High organic matter content
Ans: B) Presence of calcium carbonate
5. Which of the following crops requires the highest amount
of irrigation water per hectare
in India?
A) Wheat B) Sugarcane C) Rice D) Groundnut
Ans: B) Sugarcane
6. The principal growing regions for Groundnut in India are
primarily located in:
A) Western Ghats B) Coastal Plains of Tamil Nadu
C) Deccan Plateau D) Rajasthan and Gujarat
Ans: D) Rajasthan and Gujarat
7. The cultivation of ---- crop has been significantly
impacted by climate change,
particularly in terms of temperature sensitivity and water
requirements.
A) Sugarcane B) Jute C) Rice D) Groundnut
Ans: C) Rice
8. Assertion (A): The majority of India's irrigation comes
from groundwater sources.
Reason (R): Groundwater provides a more reliable water
supply during dry seasons
compared to surface
water sources.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
for A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation for A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
Ans: A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
9. The mineral resource considered critical for the
manufacturing of solar panels:
A) Bauxite B) Mica C) Quartz D) Copper
Ans: C) Quartz
10. The "Navi Mumbai" region is significant in
which of the following industrial sectors?
A) Steel production B) Information Technology
C) Cement manufacturing D) Ship building
Ans: B) Information Technology
11. The main objective of the National Fisheries Development
Board (NFDB) in India is to:
A) Increase fish exports to foreign markets
B) Promote sustainable fishing practices and aquaculture
C) Support traditional fishing communities
D) Regulate fishing licenses
Ans: B) Promote sustainable fishing practices and aquaculture
12. The phenomenon of "Dutch Disease" can affect
countries rich in natural resources,
particularly in the context of which following sector?
A) Agriculture B) Fisheries C) Mining D) Manufacturing
Ans: C) Mining
13. The state in India which has emerged as the leader in
solar power generation:
A) Rajasthan B) Gujarat C) Tamil Nadu D) Maharashtra
Ans: A) Rajasthan
14. The National Waterways Act of 2016 in India aims to:
A) Increase the number of national highways
B) Develop and enhance the navigability of rivers for
freight transport
C) Promote international shipping routes
D) Provide financial incentives for waterway expansions
Ans: B) Develop and enhance the navigability of rivers for freight transport
15. In terms of demographic transition, India is currently
positioned in:
A) Stage 1: High stationary B) Stage 2: Early expanding
C) Stage 3: Late expanding D) Stage 4: Low stationary
Ans: C) Stage 3: Late expanding
16. The demographic feature which is most likely to
contribute to a "youth bulge" in India:
A) Increasing life expectancy B) High fertility rates
C) Urbanization trends D) Government family planning initiatives
Ans: B) High fertility rates
17. The mineral which is predominantly mined in the district
of Idukki in Kerala:
A) Lignite B) Bauxite C) Graphite D) Ilmenite
Ans: C) Graphite
18. In terms of environmental sustainability, Kerala's
"Green Protocol" is aimed at:
A) Promoting urban development
B) Reducing plastic usage during festivals and public events
C) Enhancing industrial pollution control measures
D) Encouraging traditional agricultural practices
Ans: B) Reducing plastic usage during festivals and public events
19. Kerala's agrarian economy has been significantly
impacted by the "Green Revolution."
Which of the following crops benefited the least from this
revolution in Kerala?
A) Rice B) Cotton C) Rubber D) Sugarcane
Ans: C) Rubber
20. The map projection which is known for preserving area
but distorting shape:
A) Mercator projection B) Robinson projection
C) Equal-Area projection D) Conic projection
Ans: C) Equal-Area projection
21. The map which is best suited for displaying population
density across different regions:
A) Choropleth map B) Isoline map
C) Dot distribution map D) Physical map
Ans: A) Choropleth map
22. Assertion (A): A GIS (Geographic Information System) integrates
hardware,
software, and data for managing and analyzing geographic
information.
Reason (R): GIS can only be used for environmental studies
and cannot be applied
in urban planning or
transportation.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
for A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation for A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
Ans: C) A is true, but R is false.
23. Which of the following is not a phase in the
cartographic process?
A) Map compilation B) Data collection
C) Map generalization D) Map symbolization
Ans: B) Data collection
24. Identify the statement which best describes map
reduction:
A) It is the process of making a map larger while
maintaining its detail.
B) It is a technique used to minimize the amount of data on
a map.
C) It is the process of scaling down a map to fit a specific
size while preserving
geographic
relationships.
D) It involves the removal of unnecessary geographic
features to enhance clarity.
Ans: C) It is the process of scaling down a map to fit a specific size while preserving
geographic relationships.
25. The technique which is commonly used in map
symbolization to represent quantitative
data:
A) Point symbols B) Line symbols
C) Graduated symbols D) Area symbols
Ans: C) Graduated symbols
26. What is the significance of spectral reflectance curves
in remote sensing?
A) They provide a visual representation of the changes in
temperature over time.
B) They illustrate how different surfaces reflect
electromagnetic radiation at
various wavelengths,
aiding in material identification.
C) They depict the absorption characteristics of atmospheric
gases.
D) They measure the intensity of electromagnetic radiation
emitted by a surface.
Ans: B) They illustrate how different surfaces reflect electromagnetic radiation at
various wavelengths, aiding in material identification.
27. ---- is an example of an active remote sensing system.
A) Landsat satellites
B) MODIS (Moderate Resolution Imaging Spectroradiometer)
C) Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)
D) Radiometers
Ans: C) Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)
28. Which platform is typically associated with
high-resolution remote sensing imagery?
A) Geostationary satellites B) Low Earth orbit satellites
C) High-altitude balloons D) Ground-based stations
Ans: B) Low Earth orbit satellites
29. The primary advantage of using multispectral remote
sensing over traditional
photographic methods is:
A) It captures images in visible light only.
B) It provides higher spatial resolution.
C) It allows for the analysis of various wavelengths beyond
visible light, aiding in
material
differentiation.
D) It requires less complex data processing.
Ans: C) It allows for the analysis of various wavelengths beyond visible light, aiding in
material differentiation.
30. Orthophotos are created by:
A) Simply printing aerial photographs without any
modifications.
B) Correcting aerial photographs for scale variations and
relief displacement to
produce an accurate
representation of the Earth's surface.
C) Using digital models to generate synthetic images of the
terrain.
D) Combining multiple images taken at different times for temporal
analysis.
Ans: B) Correcting aerial photographs for scale variations and relief displacement to
produce an accurate representation of the Earth's surface.
31. Image parallax in aerial photography is crucial for:
A) Determining the scale of the photograph.
B) Assessing the color fidelity of the image.
C) Measuring the height of features above ground level.
D) Correcting lens distortions.
Ans: C) Measuring the height of features above ground level.
32. "Conflict minerals" refers to minerals:
A) Sourced from environmentally sensitive areas
B) Mined in war zones that finance armed conflict
C) With fluctuating market prices
D) That are subject to international trade restrictions
Ans: B) Mined in war zones that finance armed conflict
33. Which orbit is most commonly used for Earth observation
satellites to maintain a
consistent view of the same area?
A) Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
B) Geostationary Orbit (GEO)
C) Medium Earth Orbit (MEO)
D) Highly Elliptical Orbit (HEO)
Ans: C) Medium Earth Orbit (MEO)
34. The Landsat program is primarily associated with:
A) Russia B) United States C) France D) India
Ans: B) United States
35. In the context of image classification, which of the
following methods involves
grouping pixels based on their spectral properties?
A) Supervised classification B) Unsupervised classification
C) Spectral analysis D) Feature extraction
Ans: B) Unsupervised classification
36. The satellite program which is known for its
high-resolution optical and radar imaging
capabilities:
A) Sentinel
B) IRS (Indian Remote Sensing)
C) SPOT (Satellite Pour l'Observation de la Terre)
D) MODIS (Moderate Resolution Imaging Spectroradiometer)
Ans: A) Sentinel
37. SQL (Structured Query Language) is primarily used for:
A) Data visualization
B) Data storage
C) Managing and querying relational databases
D) Image processing
Ans: C) Managing and querying relational databases
38. In GIS, analog maps differ from digital maps primarily
in that
A) Analog maps can be easily edited, while digital maps
cannot.
C) Managing and querying relational databases
C) Analog maps are always more accurate than digital maps.
D) Digital maps require more physical space than analog
maps.
Ans: C) Managing and querying relational databases
39. ----- is specifically designed to ensure that all data
layers maintain consistent spatial
references.
A) Geocoding B) Edge matching
C) Data normalization D) Attribute indexing
Ans: B) Edge matching
40. When performing data editing in GIS, rubber sheeting is
especially useful for
A) Aligning data that has been distorted due to various
factors, such as changes in
coordinate systems.
B) Enhancing the resolution of raster images.
C) Correcting errors in attribute data.
D) Merging multiple data layers into one.
Ans: A) Aligning data that has been distorted due to various factors, such as changes in
coordinate systems.
41. Histogram equalization is used in image processing to
A) Balance the number of pixels in different classes.
B) Adjust the overall brightness of the image.
C) Spread out the most frequent intensity values across the full range of available values.
D) Remove noise from the image.
Ans: C) Spread out the most frequent intensity values across the full range of available
values.
42. The climatic condition that primarily supports the
growth of Mangrove forests in India
is characterized by:
A) Cold temperatures and low rainfall
B) High temperatures and high salinity levels
C) Moderate temperatures and consistent rainfall
D) Tropical temperatures with seasonal flooding
Ans: D) Tropical temperatures with seasonal flooding
43. Which of the following statements is true regarding
urbanization in developing
countries?
A) Urbanization is always associated with a decrease in
poverty levels.
B) Developing countries often experience rapid urbanization
due to population
growth and migration.
C) Urbanization leads to uniform distribution of resources
in developing countries.
D) Urbanization does not significantly impact cultural
practices.
Ans: B) Developing countries often experience rapid urbanization due to population
growth and migration.
44. Assertion (A) : Jet streams are narrow bands of strong
winds in the upper levels
of the atmosphere.
Reason (R): They play a critical role in influencing weather
patterns and the
movement of storm
systems.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
Ans: A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
45. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
the layers of the atmosphere?
A) The troposphere is the hottest layer of the atmosphere.
B) The stratosphere contains the ozone layer.
C) The mesosphere is where most weather events occur.
D) The thermosphere has a constant temperature throughout.
Ans: B) The stratosphere contains the ozone layer.
46. An ecological niche:
A) Refers to the physical space occupied by an organism
within its habitat.
B) Includes the role an organism plays in its ecosystem,
including its interactions
with other species
and its resource use.
C) Is synonymous with a habitat, focusing solely on the
geographical area inhabited
by a species.
D) Is a fixed characteristic that does not change with
environmental conditions.
Ans: B) Includes the role an organism plays in its ecosystem, including its interactions
with other species and its resource use.
47. Identify the statement which best describes the role of
ecotones in ecosystems:
A) They are regions with no biodiversity.
B) They are transition zones between two different ecosystems,
often with
higher biodiversity.
C) They are synonymous with habitats.
D) They represent the lowest trophic levels in food chains.
Ans: B) They are transition zones between two different ecosystems, often with
higher biodiversity.
48. The part of the energy pyramid where tertiary consumers
typically reside:
A) Base B) Middle
C) Top D) Not defined in the energy pyramid
Ans: C) Top
49. Which of the following best describes a "keystone
species"?
A) A species that is abundant and plays a significant role
in maintaining the
structure of an ecological community.
B) A species that is the largest in size within its habitat.
C) A species that migrates between habitats for breeding
purposes.
D) A species that has a minimal impact on its environment.
Ans: A) A species that is abundant and plays a significant role in maintaining the
structure of an ecological community.
50. Assertion (A) : Ecological succession is a process that
leads to an unstable
ecosystem over time.
Reason (R) : The climax community is the final stage of
succession, characterized
by a stable balance
of species and environmental conditions.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
Ans: D) A is false, but R is true.
51. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the
concept of a "resource curse"?
A) A country with abundant natural resources experiences
rapid economic growth
and development.
B) A nation rich in mineral resources fails to diversify its
economy, leading to
instability and underdevelopment.
C) A region invests in renewable energy sources, reducing
dependency on fossil
fuels.
D) A country implements strict environmental regulations,
leading to the
sustainable use of its resources.
Ans: B) A nation rich in mineral resources fails to diversify its economy, leading to
instability and underdevelopment.
52. When assessing the impact of human resources on economic
development, which of the
following factors is least relevant?
A) Education and skill level of the workforce.
B) Availability of natural resources in the region.
C) Government policies promoting labor rights.
D) Cultural attitudes towards work and innovation.
Ans: B) Availability of natural resources in the region.
53. When analyzing the economic impact of natural resource
exploitation, which of the
following factors would be most critical in determining
long-term sustainability?
A) Immediate economic benefits of resource extraction.
B) The technology used for extraction and processing.
C) The global demand for the extracted resource.
D) The regulatory framework governing resource use and
environmental protection.
Ans: D) The regulatory framework governing resource use and environmental protection.
54. Identify the correctly matched pair of resource types
and their characteristics:
A) Non-renewable resources – They are infinite and can be
used without restrictions.
B) Renewable resources – They are limited in supply and
cannot be replenished.
C) Human resources – They refer to the labor force's skills,
knowledge, and health.
D) Natural resources – They include only raw materials like
minerals and fossil fuels.
Ans: C) Human resources – They refer to the labor force's skills, knowledge, and health.
55. Which of the following factors is central to Alfred
Weber’s model of industrial
location?
A) The influence of labor costs and skills in determining
the location of industries.
B) The transportation costs between raw materials, the
production site, and the
market.
C) The availability of skilled labor and technological
infrastructure.
D) The role of government policies and incentives in shaping
industrial growth.
Ans: B) The transportation costs between raw materials, the production site, and the
market.
56. The industrial region which is characterized by a high
concentration of high-tech
industries and research facilities:
A) The Ruhr Valley in Germany
B) The Great Lakes region in the United States
C) Silicon Valley in California
D) Kangra Valley in India
Ans: C) Silicon Valley in California
57. The industry which is most likely to exhibit "footloose"
characteristics, allowing for
flexible location decisions:
A) Agriculture B) Computer software development
C) Coal mining D) Automobile manufacturing
Ans: B) Computer software development
58. Assertion (A) : Losch's model of industrial location
emphasizes the significance of
market areas in
determining the location of industries.
Reason (R) : He argued that industries will locate in areas
that maximize profits by
balancing
transportation costs and market accessibility.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
Ans: A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
59. According to the land capability classification system,
which of the following is NOT
considered a criterion for determining land capability?
A) Soil texture and structure.
B) Climate and precipitation patterns.
C) Historical agricultural practices in the region.
D) Topography and slope.
Ans: C) Historical agricultural practices in the region.
60. According to the von Thünen model, which of the
following statements best describes
the relationship between distance from the market and
agricultural production?
A) The distance from the market has no effect on
agricultural production types.
B) As the distance from the market increases, more intensive
and perishable
products are
produced.
C) The type of agricultural production shifts from intensive
to extensive as the
distance from the
market increases.
D) Agricultural production is uniform regardless of distance
from the market.
Ans: C) The type of agricultural production shifts from intensive to extensive as the
distance from the market increases.
61. The Green Revolution in India primarily focused on:
A) Sustainable agriculture practices.
B) Increasing crop yields through high-yielding varieties (HYVs) and chemical fertilizers.
C) Organic farming techniques.
D) Diversification of crops and agroforestry.
Ans: B)) Increasing crop yields through high-yielding varieties (HYVs) and chemical fertilizers.
62. The "Yellow Revolution" in India is associated
with the increase in the production of :
A) Rice B) Wheat C) Pulses D) Oilseeds
Ans: D) Oilseeds
63. The region which is primarily known for its extensive
grain farming:
A) Amazon Basin B) Great Plains of North America
C) Mediterranean Region D) Southeast Asia
Ans: B) Great Plains of North America
64. The term "demographic transition" refers to:
A) The movement of people from rural to urban areas.
B) The changes in birth and death rates as a country
develops.
C) The shift in population from one region to another.
D) The population growth rate over time.
Ans: B) The changes in birth and death rates as a country develops.
65. The demographic indicator which is commonly used to
assess population health:
A) Birth rate B) Death rate
C) Infant mortality rate D) Migration rate
Ans: C) Infant mortality rate
66. Which of the following is a characteristic of a
population pyramid with a wide base?
A) An aging population B) Low birth rates
C) High fertility rates D) High life expectancy
Ans: C) High fertility rates
67. According to Ricardo, what is the relationship between
population growth and wages?
A) Increased population leads to higher wages.
B) Increased population leads to lower wages.
C) Population growth has no impact on wages.
D) Wages are determined solely by government policies.
Ans:
68. The concept of "demographic dividend" occurs
when:
A) A large portion of the population is composed of elderly
individuals.
B) A large portion of the population is in the working-age group, leading to economic growth.
C) There is a significant outflow of migrants from a
country.
D) The birth rate exceeds the death rate significantly.
Ans: B) A large portion of the population is in the working-age group, leading to economic growth.
69. Population resource regions are characterized by:
A) High levels of resource availability and low population.
B) A balance between population and resource availability.
C) Overpopulation with insufficient resources.
D) Areas with extreme climatic conditions only.
Ans: B) A balance between population and resource availability.
70. Which type of region is defined by common
characteristics such as climate, culture, or
language?
A) Formal region B) Functional region
C) Perceptual region D) Administrative region
Ans: A) Formal region
71. Which of the following best describes the "new
urbanism" movement in regional
planning?
A) It advocates for decentralized urban areas.
B) It promotes walkable neighborhoods and sustainable
communities.
C) It encourages high-rise buildings in city centers.
D) It focuses solely on economic growth without considering
social factors.
Ans: B) It promotes walkable neighborhoods and sustainable communities.
72. The "multi-nuclei model" in urban planning
suggests that:
A) Cities develop around a single center.
B) Population density is the only factor affecting urban
growth.
C) Urban areas can have multiple centers of activity that
are interdependent
D) Urban areas can have multiple centers of activity that
grow independently.
Ans: D) Urban areas can have multiple centers of activity that grow independently.
73. The "urban-rural fringe" is best described as:
A) A purely agricultural area with no urban influence.
B) A transition zone between urban and rural areas with
mixed land uses.
C) A region exclusively dedicated to industrial activities.
D) A densely populated urban area.
Ans: B) A transition zone between urban and rural areas with mixed land uses.
74. Assertion (A) : The bottom-up approach in regional
planning enhances community
involvement.
Reason (R ) : It discourages stakeholders to participate in
decision-making processes
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
Ans: C) A is true, but R is false.
75. Which of the following best describes the "spread
effect" of a growth pole?
A) Decrease in local investments
B) Economic benefits radiating outwards to surrounding areas
C) Population decline in the growth pole region
D) Increased environmental degradation
Ans: B) Economic benefits radiating outwards to surrounding areas
76. The theory which explains the growth of cities and urban
areas based on economic
factors and the availability of jobs:
A) Malthusian Theory B) Urban Ecology Theory
C) Central Place Theory D) Dependency Theory
Ans: C) Central Place Theory
77. The Five-Year Plan which focused on the Green Revolution
in India:
A) Second Five-Year Plan B) Third Five-Year Plan
C) Fourth Five-Year Plan D) Fifth Five-Year Plan
Ans: B) Third Five-Year Plan
78. Which of the following is a key performance indicator
for assessing urban development
programs?
A) Urban area size only B) Quality of life and accessibility
to services
C) Population density D) Number of industries
Ans: B) Quality of life and accessibility to services
79. Which of the following types of urban centers is
characterized by a central business
district (CBD)?
A) Suburban areas B) Small towns
C) Metropolitan areas D) Rural villages
Ans: C) Metropolitan areas
80. Assertion (A) : The concept of growth foci in regional
planning emphasizes the role
of small, strategic
investments.
Reason (R) : Growth foci cannot catalyze local development
and enhance the
overall regional
economy.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
Ans: C) A is true, but R is false.
81. The type of urban center which primarily serves as a
regional economic hub and offers
a wide range of services:
A) Village B) Town C) City D) Megacity
Ans: C) City
82. A Megalopolis is best described as:
A) A small town with limited economic activity
B) A large city with a population exceeding 10 million
C) A chain of roughly adjacent metropolitan areas
D) A city known for its cultural heritage
Ans: C) A chain of roughly adjacent metropolitan areas
83. Assertion (A): A cultural city is defined as an urban
center primarily focused on arts,
heritage, and
tourism.
Reason (R): These cities often lack economic diversity and
primarily rely on
cultural industries.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
Ans: C) A is true, but R is false.
84. The urban land use model which focuses on the social and
economic segregation of
urban spaces:
A) Sector Model B) Multiple Nuclei Model
C) Concentric Zone Model D) Urban Realms Model
Ans: B) Multiple Nuclei Model
85. Losch's theory emphasizes the role of:
A) Physical geography in shaping urban form
B) Market demand in determining industrial location
C) Government regulations in urban planning
D) Transportation networks as the primary factor in urban
growth
Ans: B) Market demand in determining industrial location
86. In urban morphology, the term "edge city"
refers to:
A) A central business district located at the periphery of a
city
B) An area of a city undergoing significant urban renewal
C) A city characterized by a high density of historical
buildings
D) A newly developed urban area that has a large
concentration of businesses,
office spaces and
often located near highways.
Ans: D) A newly developed urban area that has a large concentration of businesses,
office spaces and often located near highways.
87. The urban land use model which emphasizes the importance
of transportation routes in
shaping city growth:
A) Concentric Zone Model B) Sector Model
C) Multiple Nuclei Model D) Urban Realms Model
Ans: B) Sector Model
88. In urban planning, the "counter-urbanization"
phenomenon refers to:
A) The migration of people from rural areas to urban centers
B) The movement of populations from urban areas to rural or
suburban regions
C) The revitalization of urban neighborhoods
D) The spatial distribution of economic activities in
metropolitan areas
Ans: B) The movement of populations from urban areas to rural or suburban regions
89. Gentrification often leads to:
A) Improved housing quality and services in previously
neglected neighborhoods
B) Increased affordable housing options for low-income
residents
C) The immediate displacement of all existing residents
without compensation
D) A decrease in property values and neighborhood
investments
Ans: A) Improved housing quality and services in previously neglected neighborhoods
90. Match List I with List II
List I – (Rivers)
List II - (Sources )
a. Godavari 1. the
Brahmagiri Hills
b. Krishna 2. theAmarkantak Plateau.
c. Narmada 3. Trimbakeswar.
d. Cauvery 4. Mahabaleswar
A) a -1, b-2, c-3, d-4 B) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
C) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 D) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
Ans: C) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
91. Which of the following best illustrates the ‘Rimland
Theory’s influence in global
politics?
A) The Cold War competition for influence in coastal areas
of Asia, Europe, and the
Middle East
B) The control of central Europe during World War II
C) The naval arms race between Britain and Germany in the
early 20th century
D) The spread of communism through the interior regions of
China
Ans: A) The Cold War competition for influence in coastal areas of Asia, Europe, and the
Middle East
92. The "Law of Diminishing Returns" is often
applied in ---- geography.
A) Economic B) Physical C) Political D) Cultural
Ans: A) Economic
93. The "Heartland Theory" in political geography
was developed by:
A) Alfred Weber B) Halford Mackinder
C) Carl Sauer D) Walter Christaller
Ans: B) Halford Mackinder
94. ----- approach in geography focuses on the analysis of
spatial patterns and the
relationships between various phenomena.
A) Deterministic B) Regional
C) Behavioral D) Quantitative
Ans: B) Regional
95. The "Quantitative Revolution" in geography
emphasized:
A) The use of mathematical and statistical techniques
B) The study of historical events
C) Qualitative descriptions of places
D) The rejection of regional geography
Ans: A) The use of mathematical and statistical techniques
96. Geography as a discipline is classified as:
A) A natural science
B) A social science
C) Both a natural and social science
D) A purely technical field
Ans: C) Both a natural and social science
97. Assertion (A): Environmental determinism suggests that
the physical
environment shapes
human societies and cultural development.
Reason (R): Human beings have no ability to modify or adapt
to their
environment.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
Ans: C) A is true, but R is false.
98. Who among the following is known for the
"Concentric Zone Model" in urban
geography?
A) Walter Christaller B) Ernest Burgess
C) Carl O. Sauer D) Carl Ritter
Ans: B) Ernest Burgess
99. Identify the correct statement:
A) The Central Place Theory focuses on the distribution of
agricultural land.
B) The Gravity Model explains the relationship between
landforms and tectonic
activity.
C) The Sector Model explains urban growth along
transportation routes.
D) The Demographic Transition Model explains the spatial
distribution of services.
Ans: C) The Sector Model explains urban growth along transportation routes.
100. The "Gravity Model" in geography is used to:
A) Study the formation of landmasses
B) Predict interaction between two places based on their
size and distance
C) Measure the Earth's gravitational field
D) Explain tectonic plate movements
Ans: B) Predict interaction between two places based on their size and distance
101. The study of patterns and processes related to the
Earth's surface is known as:
A) Geomorphology B) Biogeography
C) Cartography D) Spatial analysis
Ans: D) Spatial analysis
102. The concept of "Possibilism" in geography was
developed by:
A) Carl Ritter B) Paul Vidal de la Blache
C) Friedrich Ratzel D) William Morris Davis
Ans: B) Paul Vidal de la Blache
103. Identify the correct sequence of Himalayan Peaks from
West to East:
B) Paul Vidal de la Blache
B) Annapurna, Nanga Parbat, Dhaulagiri, Mt.Everest
C) Nanga Parbat, Mt.Everest, Annapurna, Dhaulagiri
D) Dhaulagiri, Nanga Parbat, Mt.Everest, Annapurna
Ans: B) Paul Vidal de la Blache
104. The purpose of models in geography:
A) Are primarily used to simplify complex spatial phenomena for better understanding and prediction.
B) Are used exclusively in human geography to analyze urban systems and economic activities.
C) Are static representations that cannot account for temporal changes in spatial relationships.
D) Focus only on the physical processes like climate systems and tectonic movements.
Ans: A) Are primarily used to simplify complex spatial phenomena for better understanding and prediction.
105. Regarding Tobler’s First Law of Geography, which
following statement best explains
its relevance to spatial analysis?
A) It suggests that all spatial processes are equally
distributed across space.
B) It explains that the interaction between two locations decreases as the distance between them increases.
C) It argues that geographical phenomena are not related to each other, regardless of proximity.
D) It applies only to human geography and ignores physical
processes.
Ans: B) It explains that the interaction between two locations decreases as the distance between them increases.
106. According to Rimland Theory, the areas crucial for
global power are:
A) The central landmass of Eurasia
B) The coastal fringes of Eurasia, including Europe, the
Middle East, and
Southeast Asia
C) The Arctic and Antarctic regions
D) The Pacific islands and Australia
Ans: B) The coastal fringes of Eurasia, including Europe, the Middle East, and
Southeast Asia
107. The word "Geography" is derived from:
A) Latin B) Sanskrit C) Greek D) Arabic
Ans: C) Greek
108. Which of the following is considered a major human race based on early anthropological classification?
A) Indo-European B) Mongoloid
C) Finno-Ugric D) Austroasiatic
Ans: B) Mongoloid
109. Which of the following is true about mass movements?
A) Mass movements are caused only by tectonic activity and
earthquakes
B) Mass movements, such as landslides and rockfalls, are
driven primarily by
gravity and occur on slopes
C) Mass movements are slow processes that do not
significantly alter the
landscape
D) Mass movements are limited to regions with heavy rainfall
and volcanic
activity
Ans: B) Mass movements, such as landslides and rockfalls, are driven primarily by
gravity and occur on slopes
110. Which of the following best describes the Tetrahedron
theory related to Earth's shape
and structure?
A) The Earth’s crust is divided into four large, rigid
plates that move
independently
B) The Earth's shape approximates a tetrahedron due to the
contraction of the
Earth's surface, which creates uneven pressure and
geological features
C) The Earth's core is composed of four distinct layers that
influence plate
tectonic activity
D) The Earth’s magnetic field is shaped like a tetrahedron,
affecting the
distribution of landmasses
Ans: B) The Earth's shape approximates a tetrahedron due to the contraction of the
Earth's surface, which creates uneven pressure and geological features
111. Assertion (A): Sea-floor spreading is an important process in the formation of new oceanic crust.
Reason (R): Sea-floor spreading occurs when tectonic plates converge and push molten material upward at mid-ocean ridges.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
Ans: C) A is true, but R is false.
112. Identify the statements which is correct about the
geological timescale:
A) The Paleozoic Era is the most recent era in the
geological timescale.
B) The Mesozoic Era is known as the "Age of
Mammals."
C) The Cenozoic Era began after the extinction of the
dinosaurs.
D) The Precambrian Eon is the shortest time period in
Earth's history.
Ans: C) The Cenozoic Era began after the extinction of the dinosaurs.
113. Penck’s theory of erosion differs from Davis’s cycle of
erosion, as Penck:
A) Proposes that erosion happens at a constant rate over time, regardless of tectonic activity.
B) Emphasizes that erosion and uplift occur simultaneously, leading to a continuous shaping of the landscape.
C) Focuses only on the role of rivers in the erosion process, excluding other agents like glaciers and wind.
D) Suggests that landscapes reach an equilibrium state and remain unchanged over time.
Ans: B) Emphasizes that erosion and uplift occur simultaneously, leading to a continuous shaping of the landscape.
114. Which of the following combinations correctly
identifies the factors influencing the
salinity of ocean
water in different regions?
A) Higher salinity is typically found in equatorial regions
due to intense evaporation,
while lower salinity
is common in Polar Regions due to freshwater input from
melting ice.
B) Salinity is consistently higher in coastal areas due to
river input, which dilutes the
seawater.
C) Tropical areas consistently have lower salinity due to
the abundance of rainfall
and river runoff, while subtropical regions experience
higher salinity due to
evaporation.
D) Salinity levels are uniform across all oceans and do not
vary significantly due to
temperature or geographic features.
Ans: A) Higher salinity is typically found in equatorial regions due to intense evaporation,
while lower salinity is common in Polar Regions due to freshwater input from
melting ice.
115. Identify the statement which correctly reflects the
significance of ocean deposits and
their characteristics:
A) Pelagic sediments are primarily composed of minerals
eroded from
continental landmasses and do not contribute to ocean floor
features.
B) Biogenic sediments, formed from the remains of marine
organisms, can
significantly influence the composition of oceanic crust and
nutrient cycles.
C) Ocean deposits are uniformly distributed across all ocean
basins, exhibiting
no variation based on geographic features or biological
activity.
D) The distribution of ocean deposits is mainly influenced
by tidal forces, with
limited impact from ocean currents and sedimentation
processes.
Ans: B) Biogenic sediments, formed from the remains of marine organisms, can
significantly influence the composition of oceanic crust and nutrient cycles.
116. The climatic classification system which divides climates based on temperature and precipitation is:
A) Thornthwaite B) Köppen
C) Holdridge D) Trewartha
Ans: B) Köppen
117. Assertion (A): The Gulf Stream is a warm ocean current that influences the climate of the eastern United States.
Reason (R) : It brings warm water from the tropics to the North Atlantic, affecting weather patterns and temperatures.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
Ans: A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
118. Which of the following is not a type of precipitation?
A) Rain B) Snow C) Hail D) Fog
Ans: D) Fog
119. Identify the statement which accurately explains the
concept of ocean stratification and
its implications:
A) Ocean stratification refers to the uniform distribution
of temperature and
salinity across all ocean depths, leading to a homogenous
water column.
B) The layering of ocean water, influenced by temperature
and salinity, creates
distinct biological habitats and affects nutrient
distribution.
C) Stratified waters do not significantly impact marine
ecosystems, as all
organisms are uniformly distributed regardless of depth.
D) The absence of stratification in the ocean leads to
increased nutrient cycling
and higher productivity in surface waters.
Ans: B) The layering of ocean water, influenced by temperature and salinity, creates
distinct biological habitats and affects nutrient distribution.
120. The Southern Oscillation refers to:
A) Changes in ocean currents
B) Variations in atmospheric pressure over the Pacific Ocean
C) Seasonal changes in temperature
D) The tilt of the Earth's axis
Ans:B) Variations in atmospheric pressure over the Pacific Ocean